In that OG problem, the ellipses is (to exceed). Why can't in this problem A be 'have been priced to sell, and they are (to sell)'? The answer in the video implies that A is eliminated b/c no verb form of 'sell' is parallel (are sold/selling).
The structure "'have been priced to sell, and they are to sell" would not be correct. We want to say that the wine "is selling / is being sold", which is not the same as the meaning of "the wine is to sell." This is sort of an awkward version of "the wine is for sale / the purpose of the wine is for being sold."
Long story short, the infinitive form "to sell" here is not correct.
X and y is an open marker for parallelism.their wines have been priced to sell is a clause and they are should also be clause.they do is only clause here.is this a correct way to solve?
3 Explanations